CONTROL QUESTIONS AND TASKS
1. When will defibrillation be ineffective?
A. In improper arrangement of electrodes;
B. In inadequate pulmonary ventilation;
C. In uncorrected acidosis;
D. If preceeding cardiac massage was ineffective
2. Indicate the cause of ventricular extrasystole:
A. Alkalosis
B. Hypokalemia
C. Overdosage of cardiac glycosides
D. Prolonged prescription of diuretics
3. Effect of norepinephrine:
A. Spasm of arteries and dilatation of veins
B. Dilatation of arteries and spasm of veins
C. Spasm of arteries and veins, except coronary and cerebral vessels
D. Spasm of all arteries and veins
4. Indicate to what groups, by mechanism of action, do the following vasoconstricting agents belong:
A. Norepinephrine a) corticosteroids
B. Aethimizolum b) adrenomimetics
C. Sodium oxybutyrate c) Antihypoxants
D. Dexamethason d) Stimulators of vascular center
5. Pumping function of the heart is supported by:
A. Normal level of energy exchange in the myocardium
B. Sufficient venous return to the heart
C. Preservation of compensatory potentialities
D. Normal cardiac rhythm
6. Rheologic properties of blood are conditioned by:
A. Blood viscosity
B. Physico-chemical stability of formed elements suspension
C. Stimulation of chemoreceptors in the aortic arch
D. State of vascular wall
7. Which of the preparations should be introduced intravenously for treatment of III degree atrioventricular block?
A. Lidocaine
B. Inderal
C. Novocainamide
D. Isuprel
8. Improvement of rheologic properties of blood is achieved by administration of:
A. Poliglucin
B. Neocompensan
C. Reopoliglucin
D. Alvesin
9. DIC is prevented by administration of:
A. Fibrinogen
B. Small doses of heparin
C. Reopoliglucin
D. Aminocaproic acid
E. Lipofundin
10. Prevention of fits of atrial paroxysmal tachycardia is achieved by administration of the following preparations, except:
A. Isoproterenol
B. Phenylephrine (mesaton)
C. Digitalis and quinidine preparations
D. Methoxamine
E. Morphine
11. For Adams-Stokes syndrome is not typical the presence of:
A. Ventricular fibrillation
B. Tachycardias
C. Bradycardias
D. Syncope
12. Connect in semantic pairs the following statements:
A. Normal QRS complex a) I degree of cardiac block with high rate
B. Normal QRS complex b) atrial fibrillation with regular rhythm
C. HR 150 beats/min is not removed c) ventricular tachycardia by massage of carotid sinus
D. Pulse deficit d) sinus tachycardia
E. Nodal rhythm e) nodal rhythm
12. Elongation of P-R interval >0.2 sec is observed in:
A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Sinus bradycardia
C. Alternating pulse
D. I degree cardiac block
E. Bigemeny
13. In intraventricular block we observe:
A. Widening ofQRS complex in adults >0.12 sec.
B. Irregular appearance ofP wave
C. Complete dissociation of atrial and ventricular contractions
D. Diagnosis is established only on the basis of the ECG
14. In treatment of III degree atrioventricular block developed following a myocardial infarction one should administer intravenously:
A. Lidocaine
B. Propranolol (inderal)
C. Novocainamide
D. Isoproterenol (isuprel)
E. Metaraminol
15. A rise of ventricular extrasystoles may be conditioned by:
A. Alkalosis
B. Transfer of potassium and hyperkalemia
C. Overdosage of digitalis preparations
D. Succinyl choline
17. Which of the following preparations is the most contraindicated in ventricular tachycardia?
A. Digitalis preparations
B. Quinidine
C. Novocainamide
D. Calcium chloride
E. Novocain
18. In ventricular fibrillation one should apply, first of all:
A. Electric defibrillation
B. Potassium salts
C. Calcium salts
D. Magnesium salts
19. What early treatment should one prescribe the patient with prevalent thrombosis?
A. Fresh frozen plasma
B. Factor IX (component of plasma thromboplastin)
C. Heparin
D. Frozen thrombocytes
20. What statement is incorrect?
A. Fibrinolysin is found in high concentrations in blood of the lungs, uterus, pancreas
B. In sudden death a fibrinolysin release occurs C Fibrinolysin is neutralized with antifibrinolysin
D. Fibrinogen in conserved blood is subject to degradation (proteolysis)
E. Fibrinolysin is the cause of all unexplained hemorrhages
21. In acute blood loss within a few minutes:
A. Advances hemoconcentration with elevation of hematocrit
B. Hematocrit does not change
C. Advances hemodilution with a drop of hematocrit
D. A rapid transfer of interstitial fluid into a vascular bed occurs for maintenance of constant volume of plasma
22. Which of the following mechanisms is triggered just after a hemorrhage?
A. Hypotension
B. Replenishment of proteins by the liver
C. Contraction of spleen
D. Increase of renal blood flow
23. In the process of clots formation participate:
A. Thromboplastin
B. Fibrinogen
C. Calcium
D. Potassium
24. A change of blood coagulation is observed in:
A. Anesthesia with cyclopropane
B. Application of high molecular dextrans
C. Intravenous administration of sodium nitroprusside
D. Application of heparin
25. The most frequent cause of embolism is:
A. Trauma
B. Cardiac failure
C. Aneurysms
D. Atherosclerosis
E. Atrial fibrillation
26. The death from cerebral artery embolism, as a result of whch a patency of only one trunk of pulmonary artery is broken, is caused by:
A. Decrease of respiratory surface of the lung owing to its partial collapse
B. Shift of mediastinum owing to the collapse of pulmonary portion
C. Reflex influence on both lungs and heart
D. Hemorrhage that emboli produce in alveoli
27. What is typical for hypokalemia?
A. Cardiac arrest in the systole
B. Flattening of T wave
C. Elongation of Q-Tinterval
D. Increase of T wave
28. Which of the following changes on the ECG is typical for hyperkalemia?
A. Ventricular fibrillation
B. Atrial fibrillation
C. High and narrow T wave
D. Flattening of T wave and appearance of V wave
E. Lowering of S-Tsegment
29. A cause of hyperkalemia may be:
A. Rapid transfusion of conserved blood
B. Insufficiency of adrenal cortex
C. Trauma with gross destruction of tissues
D. Effect of anabolic hormones
30. Cardiotoxic effect of hyperkalemia is controlled by application of:
A. Adrenalin
B. Caffeine
C. Ephedrine
D. Molar solution of sodium lactate
E. 10% glucose solution
31. In which of the following forms of arrhythmia is an intravenous injection of potassium effective?
A. Ventricular tachycardia
E. Nodal tachycardia
F. Ventricular extrasystole
G. Supraventricular arrhythmia
H. In all of the above-given forms of arrhythmia
32. A presence of which of the following preparations is the least necessary in the resuscitation kit?
A. Adrenalin
B. Sodium bicarbonate
C. Calcium chloride
D. Doxapram
E. Isoproterenol
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