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CONTROL QUESTIONS AND TASKS

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  1. CONTROL QUESTIONS AND TASKS
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  8. CONTROL QUESTIONS AND TASKS
  9. DISEASE CONTROL AND ERADICATION

1. When will defibrillation be ineffective?

A. In improper arrangement of electrodes;

B. In inadequate pulmonary ventilation;

C. In uncorrected acidosis;

D. If preceeding cardiac massage was ineffective

2. Indicate the cause of ventricular extrasystole:

A. Alkalosis

B. Hypokalemia

C. Overdosage of cardiac glycosides

D. Prolonged prescription of diuretics

3. Effect of norepinephrine:

A. Spasm of arteries and dilatation of veins

B. Dilatation of arteries and spasm of veins

C. Spasm of arteries and veins, except coronary and cerebral vessels

D. Spasm of all arteries and veins

4. Indicate to what groups, by mechanism of action, do the following
vasoconstricting agents belong:

A. Norepinephrine a) corticosteroids

B. Aethimizolum b) adrenomimetics

C. Sodium oxybutyrate c) Antihypoxants

D. Dexamethason d) Stimulators of vascular center

5. Pumping function of the heart is supported by:

A. Normal level of energy exchange in the myocardium

B. Sufficient venous return to the heart

C. Preservation of compensatory potentialities

D. Normal cardiac rhythm

6. Rheologic properties of blood are conditioned by:

A. Blood viscosity

B. Physico-chemical stability of formed elements suspension

C. Stimulation of chemoreceptors in the aortic arch

D. State of vascular wall

7. Which of the preparations should be introduced intravenously for
treatment of III degree atrioventricular block?

A. Lidocaine

B. Inderal

C. Novocainamide

D. Isuprel

8. Improvement of rheologic properties of blood is achieved by
administration of:

A. Poliglucin

B. Neocompensan

C. Reopoliglucin

D. Alvesin

9. DIC is prevented by administration of:

A. Fibrinogen

B. Small doses of heparin

C. Reopoliglucin

D. Aminocaproic acid

E. Lipofundin

10. Prevention of fits of atrial paroxysmal tachycardia is achieved by
administration of the following preparations, except:

A. Isoproterenol

B. Phenylephrine (mesaton)

C. Digitalis and quinidine preparations

D. Methoxamine

E. Morphine

11. For Adams-Stokes syndrome is not typical the presence of:

A. Ventricular fibrillation

B. Tachycardias

C. Bradycardias

D. Syncope

12. Connect in semantic pairs the following statements:

A. Normal QRS complex a) I degree of cardiac block with high rate

B. Normal QRS complex b) atrial fibrillation with regular rhythm

C. HR 150 beats/min is not removed c) ventricular tachycardia by
massage of carotid sinus

D. Pulse deficit d) sinus tachycardia

E. Nodal rhythm e) nodal rhythm

12. Elongation of P-R interval >0.2 sec is observed in:

A. Atrial fibrillation

B. Sinus bradycardia

C. Alternating pulse

D. I degree cardiac block

E. Bigemeny

13. In intraventricular block we observe:

A. Widening ofQRS complex in adults >0.12 sec.

B. Irregular appearance ofP wave

C. Complete dissociation of atrial and ventricular contractions

D. Diagnosis is established only on the basis of the ECG

14. In treatment of III degree atrioventricular block developed following a
myocardial infarction one should administer intravenously:

A. Lidocaine

B. Propranolol (inderal)

C. Novocainamide

D. Isoproterenol (isuprel)

E. Metaraminol

15. A rise of ventricular extrasystoles may be conditioned by:

A. Alkalosis

B. Transfer of potassium and hyperkalemia

C. Overdosage of digitalis preparations

D. Succinyl choline

17. Which of the following preparations is the most contraindicated in
ventricular tachycardia?

A. Digitalis preparations

B. Quinidine

C. Novocainamide

D. Calcium chloride

E. Novocain

18. In ventricular fibrillation one should apply, first of all:

A. Electric defibrillation

B. Potassium salts

C. Calcium salts

D. Magnesium salts

19. What early treatment should one prescribe the patient with prevalent
thrombosis?

A. Fresh frozen plasma

B. Factor IX (component of plasma thromboplastin)

C. Heparin

D. Frozen thrombocytes

20. What statement is incorrect?

A. Fibrinolysin is found in high concentrations in blood of the lungs,
uterus, pancreas

B. In sudden death a fibrinolysin release occurs
C Fibrinolysin is neutralized with antifibrinolysin

D. Fibrinogen in conserved blood is subject to degradation
(proteolysis)

E. Fibrinolysin is the cause of all unexplained hemorrhages

21. In acute blood loss within a few minutes:

A. Advances hemoconcentration with elevation of hematocrit

B. Hematocrit does not change

C. Advances hemodilution with a drop of hematocrit

D. A rapid transfer of interstitial fluid into a vascular bed occurs for
maintenance of constant volume of plasma

22. Which of the following mechanisms is triggered just after a hemorrhage?

A. Hypotension

B. Replenishment of proteins by the liver

C. Contraction of spleen

D. Increase of renal blood flow

23. In the process of clots formation participate:

A. Thromboplastin

B. Fibrinogen

C. Calcium

D. Potassium

24. A change of blood coagulation is observed in:

A. Anesthesia with cyclopropane

B. Application of high molecular dextrans

C. Intravenous administration of sodium nitroprusside

D. Application of heparin

25. The most frequent cause of embolism is:

A. Trauma

B. Cardiac failure

C. Aneurysms

D. Atherosclerosis

E. Atrial fibrillation

26. The death from cerebral artery embolism, as a result of whch a patency
of only one trunk of pulmonary artery is broken, is caused by:

A. Decrease of respiratory surface of the lung owing to its partial
collapse

B. Shift of mediastinum owing to the collapse of pulmonary portion

C. Reflex influence on both lungs and heart

D. Hemorrhage that emboli produce in alveoli

27. What is typical for hypokalemia?

A. Cardiac arrest in the systole

B. Flattening of T wave

C. Elongation of Q-Tinterval

D. Increase of T wave

28. Which of the following changes on the ECG is typical for hyperkalemia?

A. Ventricular fibrillation

B. Atrial fibrillation

C. High and narrow T wave

D. Flattening of T wave and appearance of V wave

E. Lowering of S-Tsegment

29. A cause of hyperkalemia may be:

A. Rapid transfusion of conserved blood

B. Insufficiency of adrenal cortex

C. Trauma with gross destruction of tissues

D. Effect of anabolic hormones

30. Cardiotoxic effect of hyperkalemia is controlled by application of:

A. Adrenalin

B. Caffeine

C. Ephedrine

D. Molar solution of sodium lactate

E. 10% glucose solution

31. In which of the following forms of arrhythmia is an intravenous injection
of potassium effective?

A. Ventricular tachycardia

E. Nodal tachycardia

F. Ventricular extrasystole

G. Supraventricular arrhythmia

H. In all of the above-given forms of arrhythmia

32. A presence of which of the following preparations is the least necessary
in the resuscitation kit?

A. Adrenalin

B. Sodium bicarbonate

C. Calcium chloride

D. Doxapram

E. Isoproterenol


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